Craig Tucker Posted September 10, 2014 Author Report Share Posted September 10, 2014 Craig, if I may give my personal opinion, I really don't think anything is fundamentally "missing" in a global sense. Something I often find in teaching the violin, is that to get a student to improve something, especially a domain like tone, is more a matter of helping them develop what they hear in their head than changing the way they draw their bow. I can only imagine a violin maker who listens to, say, recordings of Oistrakh playing "his" Strad as an ideal for tone, but has no violinist nearby capable of drawing a sound like that will remain frustrated for a very long time. My experience from trying lots of new violins and my limited experience making has convinced me that it's not difficult to make a good sounding violin. Getting to the point that you have a waiting list of demanding clients is another story. Ahh thanks Michael, ...for putting into simple words, my 'other side'. (in thinking that is) This type of reality I have run into as 'a player' also. Playing the violin is something that requires a skill that I, (a maker first, and strongly foremost) simply do not really have much of. I am not a musician. I simply do not "get it" with regard to playing the violin, or learning "music" theory, and all the etc.'s that may apply. Though I can fiddle around quite well, on a very simple level that has come about from doing or playing the few things that I do play - for some thirty years now... But I can hear a (the) difference in tone, due to an advanced playing technique. And am always amazed by it. and then I can hear the difference in the playing ability, that supersedes the ability of the violin (and its innate quality) itself to produce sound as a tone. Do the two - the players ability to 'induce' a tonal quality into the violin he is playing , as opposed to the violins ability to produce a tonal quality - all by itself, alone from the players ability to induce one - have a separate - real - existence? Or does the one always dictate the other? And then, if it does, how much so does it? It is my thought that perhaps the one (the players ability to draw a particular tone from the instrument) may indeed, in the final analysis, well depend on the instrument being played, in order to produce a specific tonal endpoint or result. And that a talent in playing, may well benefit (in the final analysis) from playing specific instruments, from specific makers, from specific time periods, in order for them to realize their "potential" fully, or perhaps it is simply easier to get what sound or tone they're seeking, from such instruments? Think? And that "may" well be why some violins are chosen over others. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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